Which is why the vendor sets a realistic reserve such that when reached via a legitimate bid from a valid purchaser the cars is for sale.
Illegitimate bids should have no bearing on the outcome..hence the preceding legitimate high bid irrespective of all illegitimate bids should remain the binding contract...else-wise, old besty from the pub can artificially inflate the auction bid via his I phone over a few schooners...with no intent to purchase.
If the vendor sets a reserve a 40K...he should be happy to take 40 K with no BS failed to pay, deal fell through with best buddy down the pub recourse....from a legitimate bidder.
Have I mentioned this may be an academic discussion and I have thick skin....slightly cracked though
Anyhow..thats my spin on it...
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