[twobjshelbys]

Loss of use is measurable only if there is use to be lost. Do garage queens and museum pieces - static displays - have use that can be measurably lost?

Sure, if I have a Chevy and it gets whacked and sits in a body shop I can measure loss of use by how long I had a rental car.

But here we seem to have something that was sold by someone that may or may not have had legal right to do so and the legal title was not available, and now someone who has possession of that title is intervening.

How can the title holder claim loss of use for something they didn't even know they had???

This is starting to sound like the story of Phil Spector's Coupe.

PS. I still can't rationalize that a supposed expert (who ought to know all of this) is asking these questions in a public forum. Shouldn't you know this stuff already? I'd be looking for an expert who did. ANd if I were on the other side I'd be using that maybe not such an expert collecting valuations from people who are even less experts. (Sorry, you're all thinking this but I'll just throw it out on the floor. And I suspect there a few people who are such experts and may be involved behind the scenes already.)

I'll state that the loss of use valuation is $42.