[vettestr]

foothills gary,
WOW, this all sucks! Please understand I am not asking a question to things I do not know the answer to and then arguing with you about answers, but it all seems SO WRONG.
Why or how can Ca. charge tax on a property that has already had tax paid several times.= 1st income tax on money used to purchase car. 2nd sales tax on purchase of car in another state in this case. 3rd Ca. registration taxes and assuming current tags and fees paid in another state have been paid for at least one year are still current. 4th now pay 0.67% personal property tax to move it into Ca as a new resident. 5th now again pay Sales Tax ( 7 to 9 % ) on a car to Ca., but has already been paid in state originally purchased.
Then the final insult is , If car is titled from another state with VIN assigned and declared a 1966 by that state WHY WOULD IT NOW have to go through the SB100 steps?
I should be able to drive up to a DMV and walk in with my title stating 1966, get any inspection needed to verify VIN numbers on title match the car, pay my $$$ and leave. Should be no different than a 1966 VW in terms of process. This is such a P.C. world anymore how can they just flip the bird to documents from another state? The FEDS have no problem with laws of that state.